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GARP Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Sample Questions (Q86-Q91):

NEW QUESTION # 86
A trader inadvertently booked a trade with incorrect information. A subsequent market move resulted in a gain to the bank. Should the bank include this amount of gain into its operational loss event data program?
I. The bank should include this gain in its operational loss event data program as a gain realized due to operational risk events.
II. The bank should include this gain in its operational loss event data program as it indicates that a control failed or a process is flawed.
III. The bank should include this event in its operational loss event data program and record the gain as a loss resulting from operational risk.The bank should not include this event in its operational loss event data program as it is not a loss event, but a market risk event.

A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation:
When a trader inadvertently books a trade with incorrect information and a subsequent market move results in a gain for the bank, the event should be included in the operational loss event data program because:
* Indication of Control Failure (II): The gain indicates that a control failed or a process is flawed. Even if the outcome was a gain, the underlying issue was a mistake, pointing to a weakness in the bank's operational controls that needs to be addressed.
* Recording the Event as a Loss (III): Although the event resulted in a gain, it should be included in the operational loss event data program and recorded as a loss. The principle behind this is to ensure that all operational risk events are tracked, irrespective of their financial outcome, to provide a complete picture of operational risk exposures and to improve risk management practices.
Including such events helps in identifying and correcting process flaws to prevent future incidents that could result in actual losses.
References
* How Finance Works.pdf, Index section

NEW QUESTION # 87
In analyzing market option pricing dynamics, a risk manager evaluates option value changes throughout the entire trading day. Which of the following factors would most likely affect foreign exchange option values?
I. Change in the value of the underlying
II. Change in the perception of future volatility
III. Change in interest rates
IV. Passage of time

A. II, III
B. I, II
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV

Answer: D

Explanation:
The value of foreign exchange options is influenced by several factors, including:
* Change in the value of the underlying (I): This directly affects the option's intrinsic value.
* Change in the perception of future volatility (II): Higher expected volatility increases the option's potential payoff.
* Change in interest rates (III): This affects the cost of carrying positions in the underlying asset.
* Passage of time (IV): This influences the time value of the option. All these factors collectively impact the pricing dynamics of options throughout the trading day.

NEW QUESTION # 88
Short-selling is typically associated with which of the following risks?
I. Potential for extreme losses
II. Risk associated with the availability of shares to borrow
III. Market behavior risk
IV. Liquidity risk

A. I, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II
D. I, II, III, IV

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Short-selling (selling borrowed securities expecting a price drop) entails:
* I:Extreme losses if prices rise unexpectedly (unlimited upside risk).
* II:Borrow risk if shares become unavailable or costly to borrow.
* III:Market behavior risk from coordinated actions (e.g., short squeezes).
Reference:GARP FRR Study Notes, Market Risk Section; BCBS, "Basel III: A Global Regulatory Framework," para. 701-705.

NEW QUESTION # 89
Most loans and deposits in the interbank market have a maturity of:

A. Less than one year
B. More than 3 years but less than 5 years
C. More than 10 years
D. More than 5 years but less than 10 years

Answer: A

Explanation:
Most loans and deposits in the interbank market have a maturity of less than one year. This short-term nature is due to the need for liquidity and flexibility among banks, allowing them to manage their short-term funding requirements and respond to changes in interest rates and market conditions effectively.

NEW QUESTION # 90
Which one of the following four options is NOT a typical component of a currency swap?

A. A final currency exchange
B. Denomination of the original notional amount into a foreign currency
C. Periodic exchange of interest payments in different currencies
D. An initial currency exchange of the notional amount

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 91
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